After GC quit in 2 months

[qwerty987666]

If it is a salary, you get it paid even if you don't work the full hours.

WRONG. One more BS from veteran misleader. Salaried employee gets paid for what they work for., if they work less, they have to use Paid time off else they don't get paid for those hrs. Thats it. Case closed.

Members, this joeF aka idiot runs business of NO revenue , has no clue about whatever he talks about . Just ignore him

 

[TheRealCanadian]

WRONG. One more BS from veteran misleader. Salaried employee gets paid for what they work for., if they work less, they have to use Paid time off else they don't get paid for those hrs. Thats it. Case closed.

It depends. In many cases, people don't punch a clock and work however many hours they need to do. Sometimes it's over 40/week, sometimes less. Pay doesn't vary. This kind of thing really is up to each individual employer and employee, so there are a lot of variations.

Much of your differences with Joe are a matter of degree, not substance. If you noticed this and spent less time trying to slag each other, this forum would be a lot more productive.

 

[qwerty987666]

It depends. In many cases, people don't punch a clock and work however many hours they need to do. Sometimes it's over 40/week, sometimes less. Pay doesn't vary. This kind of thing really is up to each individual employer and employee, so there are a lot of variations.

you are talking about different things, You are suggesting to putting hrs which you haven't worked, in that case as long as you can defend your WRONGDOING , you get paid.
But when you work as consultant (As permenent employee ) with client, you put hrs what you worked factually, it can be 30hrs or 50hrs a week. In that case, you get paid what you work for, provided your client approves extra hrs. And this is common norm of all IT consulting companies.
But making statements like "monthly salaried employee can't claim overtime" by JoeF is totally misleading and BS.

 

[agc2005]

finally it confused me totally, so what is the genuine answer? could anyone answer me plane and simple

 

[qwerty987666]

Idiotic rantling.

agc2005, your q/s already answered in this thread. Do you have some other q/s??
Let me say few things about payroll(alien term for JoeF)

When any employer runs payroll for their employees(salaried), payroll software computes hrly rate for that payperiod from monthly salary and then based on no of hrs worked, paystub is generated. This is what any payroll system does. So if some idiot aka joeF gets paid full salary without working, it means either he enters all hrs worked in system(one more misleading) or employer gives him some excuse to allow him get paid for full hrs.
Joef had no idea how payroll runs. but don't blame him, he hardly knows about anything like "getting paid"

. If I had more than 40 hours, I got paid my normal salary. If I had less than 40 billable hours, I got paid my normal salary nonetheless. Even .

That just tells how sh*t your employer was. Does he runs payroll or just handout salary to you?? Or Joef's salary is so low that payroll software can't divide it by total hrs for that payperiod??? Anyway who cares!!!And such a sh*t employer has sponsered JoeF's GC!!!! now everybody knows why JoeF's is so scared about protecting GC and try induct same fear into others. jeez get a life.

 

[TheRealCanadian]

When any employer runs payroll for their employees(salaried), payroll software computes hrly rate for that payperiod from monthly salary and then based on no of hrs worked, paystub is generated. This is what any payroll system does. So if some idiot aka joeF gets paid full salary without working, it means either he enters all hrs worked in system(one more misleading) or employer gives him some excuse to allow him get paid for full hrs.

No, this is exactly the arrangement I had with all of my US employers except the current one - I got paid x dollars every two weeks, regardless of what I billed (and my last job I did not "bill") at all. The software contracting world is not representative of working conditions across the economy as a whole.

 

[qwerty987666]

No, this is exactly the arrangement I had with all of my US employers except the current one - I got paid x dollars every two weeks, regardless of what I billed (and my last job I did not "bill") at all. The software contracting world is not representative of working conditions across the economy as a whole.

The q/s of billable/non-billable is more relavant from OT( or as straight hrs) point of view and might more applicable to IT.

For your case, you must have some form of timesheet to fill out for every week or 2 weeks?? You fill out that timesheet , which is passed to payroll and payroll pays you, based on those timesheet hrs. (Some employer might controls hrs passed to payroll for each employee seperately). But ultimately any payroll needs "No of Hrs" and "salary" for each payperiod for each employee to compute paystub. If payroll receives less hrs, you get paid less, thats it.If you work less hrs for payperiod and enters less hrs in timesheet then you have to adjust remaining hrs as PTO or some form of time-off, else payroll system will pay you less.

For "exemt"(non-billable) employees also, employer has to pay them OT if they go above certain percentage of regular hrs. Employers can't ask you to work infinite hrs without paying you. OT Law differs from state to state(For CA , its 1.5 times of regular pay ,my state is regular rate etc), but employer have obligation to pay no of extra hrs that meets the criteria(for salried employee)

But making statements like "monthly salaried employee can't claim overtime" and "monthly salaried can work less hrs ,still gets full salary" by JoeF is totally misleading and BS.

 

[qwerty987666]

Our troll shows once more that he has no clue whatsoever about how businesses are run.

I definately don't want know about running your kind of business, which has no revenue, so obviously no payroll and only agenda of that business is "post crap on forums" and mislead innocent members.

Good luck to you with your crappy busness and let all members know your joy when you make your first $.

 

[agc2005]

forget about all these things, how about this if my employer or accountant of the company gave me a written statement through email/fax about my dues will that be a legal one.

 

[TheRealCanadian]

For your case, you must have some form of timesheet to fill out for every week or 2 weeks?? You fill out that timesheet , which is passed to payroll and payroll pays you, based on those timesheet hrs.

No. I got paid the same amount no matter how much or little I worked - that's the whole difference between salary and an hourly wage. If you're filling out a timesheet and getting paid $x per hour worked, you're not on salary.

If you work less hrs for payperiod and enters less hrs in timesheet then you have to adjust remaining hrs as PTO or some form of time-off, else payroll system will pay you less.

This is the classic definition of an individual not on salary.

 

[qwerty987666]

No. I got paid the same amount no matter how much or little I worked - that's the whole difference between salary and an hourly wage. If you're filling out a timesheet and getting paid $x per hour worked, you're not on salary.
.

WRONG analogy. Everybody (salaried/hrly) ultimately get paid based on hrs worked. Period. Its applicable to IT or non-IT jobs. I am salaried employee for all yrs in US, I always have to fill out timesheet , regardless its billable or non-billable. and I get paid based on timesheet hrs, If I work less, I get paid less. Thats it.Its true for all of my friends.
In your case, if you don't fill out timesheet, that just means that your employer feeds hrs to payroll system by himself or other means not thru timesheet. (Check your paystub, it should have no hrs for that payperiod and rate at which you got paid)

No. I got paid the same amount no matter how much or little I worked - that's the whole difference between salary and an hourly wage..

I wish what you say is TRUE, then I( and all other salaried member) don't have to depend on limited vacations(PTO) at all, just don't go to work and get paid full salary!!! what a life!!! And employer also don't need to offer PTO because they have to pay full salary anyway. But NOT True and not REALITY.

 

[TheRealCanadian]

WRONG analogy. Everybody (salaried/hrly) ultimately get paid based on hrs worked. Period.

You're completely missing the point, qwerty. The whole essence of being on salary is that the amount of hours you work have no direct correlation to the amount you make. And if you don't work enough, you get let go.

I always have to fill out timesheet , regardless its billable or non-billable. and I get paid based on timesheet hrs, If I work less, I get paid less.

And that's an hourly wage, not salary.

In your case, if you don't fill out timesheet, that just means that your employer feeds hrs to payroll system by himself or other means not thru timesheet.

Strictly speaking, you are correct there. My hours were always 80 every two weeks, automatically, since I got paid the same wether I worked 40 or 120 hours in that period.

I wish what you say is TRUE, then I( and all other salaried member) don't have to depend on limited vacations(PTO) at all, just don't go to work and get paid full salary! what a life!

You don't need to mock me. As I said earlier, this is predicated on a relationship where if I don't produce enough, I don't keep my job. Most people aren't children and stopped needing attendance when we left high school.

But NOT True and not REALITY.

There's a philosophical question we have here - if a tree falls in the forest, does it make a sound?. Can you accept the existence of things you may not have personally observed?

 

[qwerty987666]

There's a philosophical question we have here - if a tree falls in the forest, does it make a sound?. Can you accept the existence of things you may not have personally observed?

.

You are just assuming that how things work for you, works for everybody. Not TRUE.

And that's an hourly wage, not salary.

.

No I am not, I am salaried employee all time, but still gets paid based on no of hrs I worked.

Strictly speaking, you are correct there. My hours were always 80 every two weeks, automatically, since I got paid the same wether I worked 40 or 120 hours in that period.

.

Exactly, though you are salaried employee,your employer have to input required hrs in his payroll system because salary is calculated based on no of hrs workd and hrly rate(calculated from monthly salary) for salaried employee too. And if your employer enter less hrs in payroll , you get paid less or enters more hrs, your employer has to pay you excess hrs(if excess hrs are above certain percentage,for EXEMPT employess too, by LAW).

 

[qwerty987666]

more idiotic Grumblings

JoeF don't know anything about "salary" as he never got one . Ignore him. Bang

If I had more than 40 hours, I got paid my normal salary. If I had less than 40 billable hours, I got paid my normal salary nonetheless. Even .

That just tells how sh*t your employer was. Does he runs payroll or just handout salary to you?? Or Joef's salary is so low that payroll software can't divide it by total hrs for that payperiod??? Anyway who cares!!!And such a sh*t employer has sponsered JoeF's GC!!!! now everybody knows why JoeF's is so scared about protecting GC and try induct same fear into others. jeez get a life.

 

[PhillyKP]

My $0.02

Not sure how this discussion got to this point, but I have worked with US payroll systems for the last 6 years, so hear me out -

Your employment is based on a number of statuses - hourly, salaried, exempt (from overtime), non-exempt (from overtime), etc. Payroll and time management systems also use a concept called positive and negative time recording status.

Positive status implies that you (as an employee) are required to report time for (usually) at least 8 hrs a day, whether that be an 'attendance' (for this purpose of this forum, since everyone seems to be a 'consultant' , billable time) or an 'absence' (non billable time). A positive employee, for this purpose will typically be an hourly employee who may be exempt or non-exempt (and thus is eligible to earn overtime). The key here is usually (not always). Overtime, in all it's forms (straight time, time-and-a half, double-time, etc) may or may not apply, depending upon your employment agreement (not mandated by law). In this case, gross will be calculated as
gross = (attendance hours * rate) - (absence hours * rate)
(attendance hours include regular time and overtime, if stipulated in agreement/contract)

Negative status implies you only record your absences. That is, during the calculation of your gross payroll, the system assumes you have worked all 8 hours unless an 'absence' is specifically reported. Keep in mind for this paragraph as well as the one above that an absence type does not necessarily have to be unpaid (paid absences include all your paid leaves, for ex.), In this case, gross will be calculated as
gross = prorated salary amount ((could be weekly, biweekly, semi-monthly, monthly amounts, etc) ) - (absence hours recorded * rate)

Now most companies do not have such straightforward business processes. There are all kinds of permutations and combinations that come about due to different business needs. A lot of people are surprised when they find out that they are not truely salaried, but negative, hourly. Also, another thing to keep in mind - how you record your time may not be a good indicator of your employment status, especially in the consulting industry. This is because regulations and contracts might require a contractor/employer to record billable in a specific manner, but that doesn't mean that employee gets paid accordingly. For example, you could be recording every hour, but if your position is exempt but still hourly, you don't get paid overtime.

Qwerty, for the purposes of this discussion, not knowing how exactly your employer is set up, my prima facie analysis is that you are actually a negative employee who is, nevertheless, hourly.

As stated here by multiple respondents - because something has been 'observed', does not make it the truth

Whew! that's a long winded explanation...

Cheers,

K

 

[qwerty987666]

More idiotic rants

Read reality and truth behind misleading by joeF.

If I had more than 40 hours, I got paid my normal salary. If I had less than 40 billable hours, I got paid my normal salary nonetheless.

That just tells how sh*t JoeF's employer was. Does he runs payroll or just handout salary to you?? Or Joef's salary is so low that payroll software can't divide it by total hrs for that payperiod??? Anyway who cares!!!And such a sh*t employer has sponsered JoeF's GC!!!! now everybody knows why JoeF's is so scared about protecting GC and try induct same fear into others. jeez get a life.

 

[agc2005]

with all these fights I didn't get suggestion on my question, could anybody look in that...

""forget about all these things, how about this if my employer or accountant of the company gave me a written statement through email/fax about my dues will that be a legal one.""

 

[agc2005]

Sorry about the fights, somebody just can't stop fighting his futile fights...
It depends on a bunch of factors, like, was the person making that statement allowed to make such a decision. Different states also have different laws. Your best bet is to take all the evidence you have and go to a lawyer who specializes in labor law.

The letter is from the person who has "power of attorney"

 

[qwerty987666]

with all these fights I didn't get suggestion on my question, could anybody look in that...

""forget about all these things, how about this if my employer or accountant of the company gave me a written statement through email/fax about my dues will that be a legal one.""

If your employer is ready to give statement regarding dues, then whats his argument not to pay you those dues??

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Ignore misleader aka JoeF, as he has lost all credibility on this forum