Hello,
I saw some postings here and on murthy.com that BCIS has recently expressed the view that in case of AC21 the pay for the new job needs to be >= salary mentioned on LC.
My view is LC is required to prove that there is no US citizens available for the job. If the LC salary is, say, 75K and we don't find any US citizens interested in the job, do you think we will find US citizens for the job if the pay is < LC salary? I guess 'NO'. I would guess that if a LC is valid for 75k, then it should be valid for <75k as long as it is above provery level.
Then why does BCIS want to make sure that if a person changes job using AC21, the salary needs to be >=LC salary?
Given the condition of economy, a lot of people might need to use AC21 and in this slow economy it is vey hard to find a job that is >=LC salary (which in most cases was filed almost 2/3 years ago during the boom period)
Your thoughts?
Thx,
I saw some postings here and on murthy.com that BCIS has recently expressed the view that in case of AC21 the pay for the new job needs to be >= salary mentioned on LC.
My view is LC is required to prove that there is no US citizens available for the job. If the LC salary is, say, 75K and we don't find any US citizens interested in the job, do you think we will find US citizens for the job if the pay is < LC salary? I guess 'NO'. I would guess that if a LC is valid for 75k, then it should be valid for <75k as long as it is above provery level.
Then why does BCIS want to make sure that if a person changes job using AC21, the salary needs to be >=LC salary?
Given the condition of economy, a lot of people might need to use AC21 and in this slow economy it is vey hard to find a job that is >=LC salary (which in most cases was filed almost 2/3 years ago during the boom period)
Your thoughts?
Thx,