Gurus,
Happy New Year to all!
Forgive me for asking a question that has probably been discussed here before:
I want to know why India and China are now subject to long retrogression. I know the basics:
There is a per country quota of 10K GC per year. However, Ithought that the AC21 bill passed in 1999 mandated that the unused GCs from the 10K quota of many smaller countries can be rolled over to India and China, and so all countries were current from 2000 to early 2005.
So, what happened suddenly? Did all countries start using up their 10K per year quota --- Hard to belive since post 9/11 USA is not at all as attrative as it used to be.
Is the current 5+ year retrogression in all 3 EB (1,2, and 3) categories some new form of anti-India/China discrimination or is there some "Logical" basis for retrogression now
Happy New Year to all!
Forgive me for asking a question that has probably been discussed here before:
I want to know why India and China are now subject to long retrogression. I know the basics:
There is a per country quota of 10K GC per year. However, Ithought that the AC21 bill passed in 1999 mandated that the unused GCs from the 10K quota of many smaller countries can be rolled over to India and China, and so all countries were current from 2000 to early 2005.
So, what happened suddenly? Did all countries start using up their 10K per year quota --- Hard to belive since post 9/11 USA is not at all as attrative as it used to be.
Is the current 5+ year retrogression in all 3 EB (1,2, and 3) categories some new form of anti-India/China discrimination or is there some "Logical" basis for retrogression now