I am not posting this just to be coy or snide or sly.
Unless I'm mistaken, the requirement for removal of conditions is that you did not enter the marriage to procure an immigration benefit. I forget the exact wording. I don't know if it's "primarily" or "exclusively" or what.
As a rule, you are required to show that you entered the marriage with a good faith intention to establish a bona fide marital relationship, and to document that by showing such things as shared residence, shared financial responsibilities, etc.
What if you said "I neither entered the marriage to live with my spouse and share responsibilities, nor for an immigration benefit. I entered it for (pick one) money/social status/placate my family/etc."
That is not entering the marriage for an immigration benefit. But it's also not getting married for the reason most people get married.
Seriously, how would USCIS adjudicate this?
One thing I find frustrating is the lack of precedential decisions and documentation. If I want to know whether the search of a computer is legal, or whether a will is valid, there is plenty of case law that is published. For immigration, there is extremely limited documentation. I'm not even sure how USCIS makes sure that similar cases are decided the same way by different immigration decision officers.
I'm asking because my estranged spouse will probably be unable to show any of the traditional marital bona fides, but she could quite possibly make a case that she did not get married for the green card, but for some other reason than to live with and share her life with me.
Unless I'm mistaken, the requirement for removal of conditions is that you did not enter the marriage to procure an immigration benefit. I forget the exact wording. I don't know if it's "primarily" or "exclusively" or what.
As a rule, you are required to show that you entered the marriage with a good faith intention to establish a bona fide marital relationship, and to document that by showing such things as shared residence, shared financial responsibilities, etc.
What if you said "I neither entered the marriage to live with my spouse and share responsibilities, nor for an immigration benefit. I entered it for (pick one) money/social status/placate my family/etc."
That is not entering the marriage for an immigration benefit. But it's also not getting married for the reason most people get married.
Seriously, how would USCIS adjudicate this?
One thing I find frustrating is the lack of precedential decisions and documentation. If I want to know whether the search of a computer is legal, or whether a will is valid, there is plenty of case law that is published. For immigration, there is extremely limited documentation. I'm not even sure how USCIS makes sure that similar cases are decided the same way by different immigration decision officers.
I'm asking because my estranged spouse will probably be unable to show any of the traditional marital bona fides, but she could quite possibly make a case that she did not get married for the green card, but for some other reason than to live with and share her life with me.
