I have trouble understanding the reasoning behind EB1 retrogression date. My guess is there should've been very few backlogged cases before 2004 or virtually none before 2002. Even if the number of applicants of EB1 from China well exceed the quota in 2003, 2004, it still does not make sense to retrograte the cut-off dates to 2000. Are EB1 and EB2 in seperate queues for each country?